In the question: "Partial" Lagrangian Dual in LP
It is argued that considering a partial Lagrangian $L_{partial}$, where we Dualize only some of the constraints, results in a tighter relaxation. Therefore optimizing w.r.t. the dual variables in the partial relaxation should result in a $0$ duality gap.
If there is 0 duality gap, for the optimal lagrange multiplier $\lambda^\star$, by optimizing $\max_{x\in D} L_{partial}(x,\lambda^\star)$ (with $D$ corresponding to the region that is not dualized), one would expect to find the optimal primal solution $x^\star$ (which is true in standard duality with 0 duality gap).
However, that leads to the confusing following argument: Dualizing only the capacity constraints in the max flow problem, results in a problem which is the uncapacited max-flow problem (for given multipliers $\lambda$). Then by finding $\lambda^\star$, one can solve the max-flow problem by solving a shortest-path problem. Of course this doesn't make a lot of sense, since the max-flow solution would typically not be a single-path. Therefore there should be some error in the above reasoning.