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Dec 18, 2021 at 6:36 history edited user9659 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 18, 2021 at 5:59 comment added user9659 Thank you. I'm looking it up now. The complete constraint that we modeled is $\mathbb{E}[Y_j]=(y_j z_j)/(1-z_j)$ for all $j$ and $z_j>0$, and we have $y_j$ as mentioned in the question. That is why I was trying to linearize the $RHS$ of $y_j$ by itself.
Dec 18, 2021 at 4:33 comment added RobPratt I was thinking that you might be able to apply compact linearization a la Liberti. Where else does $y_j$ appear in the model?
Dec 18, 2021 at 4:29 history became hot network question
Dec 18, 2021 at 4:04 vote accept CommunityBot
Dec 18, 2021 at 4:03 comment added user9659 We have $\sum_j \sum_k x_{ij}^k=1$ for all $i$. Could you please let me know why this important? Is there another way to simplify the ratio?
Dec 17, 2021 at 22:35 comment added RobPratt Do you also have constraints like $\sum_i x_{ij}^k=1$ or maybe $\sum_k x_{ij}^k=1$?
Dec 17, 2021 at 22:33 history edited RobPratt
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Dec 17, 2021 at 20:52 answer added prubin timeline score: 6
S Dec 17, 2021 at 20:29 review First questions
Dec 17, 2021 at 21:10
S Dec 17, 2021 at 20:29 history asked user9659 CC BY-SA 4.0