It might be somewhat irrelevant to this forum but I think that many people here are familiar with this concept. I have seen that many papers assume that customers' valuation ($F$) is a monotone hazard rate (MHR) distribution, that is, the hazard rate $\frac{f(v)}{1-F(v)}$ is non-decreasing in $v$. What does this assumption implicate from a business perspective? Moreover, what is the impact of this assumption on optimization procedures?
Many papers in Revenue Management and Dynamic Pricing use hazard rate, but what does it mean in these contexts?